Psychological test 100 questions. Five of the most accurate online psychological tests. D) taking more than two steps with the ball in your hands

Nowadays you can find thousands of psychological tests on the Internet, but their results are often disappointing: inaccurate or too general. You simply look for words in the text that are pleasant for you - and it seems that they were written about you.

Our selection of tests is approved by the psychological community. You can truly trust the results. In addition, these tests are difficult to fool and predict the result.

Luscher test

Color selection technique. This test, invented by Swiss psychologist Max Lüscher, quite accurately determines your psychological state in which you are now. This test describes what a person really is like, since the choice of color is based on unconscious processes.

Szondi test

Portrait selection method. The technique was developed in the 30s of the twentieth century by the Viennese psychologist Leopold Szondi. He discovered a certain pattern that governs a person’s selectivity in communicating with others. The unconscious choice of certain facial features, in his opinion, determines some of one’s own character traits, personality traits, and even a predisposition to mental illness.

Cattell Questionnaire

Cattell's 16-factor personality questionnaire is one of the most common questionnaire methods for assessing individual psychological characteristics of a personality both abroad and in our country. This test allows you to look at personality from different angles. The questionnaire is quite large, so you will have to allocate special time to complete this test in its entirety.

The short orientation and selection test (BOT) is designed to diagnose the general level of intellectual abilities. This test is often used in hiring for leadership positions, intelligence agencies, the military and other fields. CAT allows you to diagnose a person’s ability to acquire new knowledge and activities.

Projective drawing test

In general, there are many projective techniques. You need to use your imagination and complete the proposed figure. We offer a simple and quick test.

• Luscher test
• Szondi test
• Cattell Questionnaire
• Short Orientation Test (SOT)
• Projective drawing test

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By passing the test using the method developed by Viktor Tolkachev, you can receive the key of knowledge to unlock your own hidden capabilities, even talent, and as a result receive an individual Formula of Happiness. A psychological test that covers all aspects of personality, this test makes it possible to apply assessment methods of system-vector psychoanalysis and directly understand the individuality of the person being tested. This unique tool for understanding one’s own “I” can show in which species role it is more correct to look for the realization of one’s natural characteristics.

It is necessary to answer the questions and put an assessment of the survey result directly in the corresponding cell of the table.

Explanations for the test: Each cell of the table corresponds to the number of the question or statement. Your answer to the question or indication of your attitude to the statement is one of the numbers in the list of answers given below:

0. Well, no way

1. No it's not like that
2. Pretty much no
3. In general, no
4. More likely no than yes
5. Yes and no (neither yes nor no)
6. Rather yes than no
7. Quite possible
8. It's quite possible
9. To a very large extent this is true
10. Well of course it is

1. I need advice and willingly listen to it. It takes me a long time to choose a product in a store; I prefer to get advice.
2. I am a hardworking person, I love physical labor.
3. It's better to be dead than second.
4. Marriages of convenience are preferable to marriages of love.
5. Erotica and sex are the true engines of progress.
6. I am a cheerful person - I like to laugh out loud.
7. I dream of spiritual, sublime and pure love.
8. I’m absent-minded and have poor sense of direction – I’ll get lost in three pines.
9. I have a sense of smell like a good detective dog. Smells affect my performance too much.
10. I am a creative person.
11. Monotonous work does not tire me.
12. I like to be in a crowd.
13. I can lead people.
14. I often count my money and know exactly how much I have now.
15. A person’s intimate life does not require social prohibitions.
16. If you don’t lie, you can’t tell it beautifully.
17. I like to contemplate the play of colors. The combination of colors affects my well-being and mood.
18. I am absent-minded, I can drive in the wrong direction, mix up the time or details of clothing.
19. It’s safer not to interfere in anything and remain an outside observer.
20. A person’s culture, as a rule, depends on his sincerity.
21. Before I start doing anything, I try it on several times.
22. Good furniture should be massive.
23. My mess is my comfort, don’t interfere with it.
24. I always have an emergency reserve for a rainy day.
25. Marital fidelity is a dubious virtue.
26. I rest my soul in the kitchen, practicing culinary art.
27. I am characterized by mercy and compassion. I will save a fly drowning in milk.
28. Sometimes I get depressed.
29. Intuition often helps me out; I am careful and prudent.
30. Chess is a sport.
31. I bring any task to the end, to the point.
32. I feel so much strength in myself that I don’t know where to put it.
33. I like to experiment everywhere, everywhere and in everything.
34. Daily routine and discipline are the key to my success.
35. A real man remains a sexual hunter everywhere and in everything.
36. I like to kiss a lot and for a long time.
37. I am easily offended to the point of tears. They often flow involuntarily from my eyes.
38. I have a good ear for music. A false melody and an unpleasant, sharp sound - pain throughout the body.
39. People are indifferent to other people's problems.
40. Books are not entertainment.
41. I am patient and diligent.
42. I have good muscle memory.
43. Money is water. Walking is like walking.
44. It’s a pity to spend money on flowers - they will wither anyway.
45. Unbridled passion adorns a woman.
46. ​​I love to chat, I can’t resist speaking out on any matter.
47. I believe in fortune telling, omens and miracles.
48. I enjoy the sounds of nature: the singing of birds, the sound of leaves and water.
49. Trusting people is dangerous.

50. Looking at the stars is not relaxation, but food for the mind
51. I love packing things, and I’m good at it.
52. Physical strength is the main dignity of a person.
53. I don’t tolerate comments addressed to me.
54. I hate lending money and I remember all my debtors.
55. I evaluate everyone I meet as a potential sexual partner.
56. A strong word is not a sin, but a highlight in a conversation.
57. I love to transform and try on other people’s images.
58. Sometimes I hear things that others don’t hear.
59. You need to know everything about everyone.
60. Living for others is profitable.
61. I am neat and clean. I really like to put things in order. Sometimes this way I lift my spirits.
62. I love going to the gym.
63. Boredom is death! Not a day without adventures, and better than sexual ones.
64. I always arrive at exactly the appointed time and don’t understand people who are late.
65. The main thing in marriage is sexual compatibility.
66. I prefer very hot, spicy and peppery food.
67. I worry about what I will look like after death.
68. I am a night owl: I sleep during the day and stay awake at night.
69. People do everything for me themselves.
70. I like to count crows
71. I love clean shoes and take care of them regularly.
72. If necessary, I can slaughter a chicken.
73. I like to take risks – it’s hit or miss.
74. I love a bathhouse with a broom, hard washcloths, brushes, applicators and massage.
75. Everything is permissible between lovers in intimate relationships.
76. I like oral sex, but a lot depends on the partner.
77. I like to play with children, I understand their needs and experiences.
78. Music... It drives me crazy, and I often hear it in my dreams.
79. The main thing is to leave on time...
80. I love it when they joke, even at me.
81. No one will remember that I did anything for a long time. But everyone will remember that I did it well.
82. I often feel like a bull in a china shop.
83. I hate making my bed.
84. I can’t stand husks and crumbs – I definitely collect them.
85. Premarital sexual relations are permissible.
86. Said before I thought. First the word - then the thought.
87. My inner world is full of colorful images, which I sometimes take for reality.
88. I’m trying to find the meaning of life, although I don’t see the point in it.
89. Secret is a great weapon
90. I know quite a lot of poems by heart.
91. A bitter and merciless truth is better than a sweet lie, even if it is for salvation.
92. I feel comfortable in a cramped room.
93. I can’t do one thing, I prefer several at once.
94. The soul improves through suffering.
95. It happens that sex life deprives a person of reason.
96. I love to eat deliciously and a lot, often I can’t stop.
97. Beauty will save the world.
98. I master foreign languages ​​perfectly, I feel the slightest shades of words.
99. Luxury reveals. It's better to be in the shade.
100. Feeling sorry for yourself is a sin.

Test results and following information

You can send it to a psychologist and receive a comprehensive answer.

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This test is the introductory part of “The Luxury of Systemic Self-Knowledge.”

Physical education tests.

1. The oldest form of organization of physical culture was:

B) martial arts

B) chariot competitions

D) games

2.The physical culture of the slave society had:

A) applied orientation

B) military and health orientation

B) educational orientation

D) educational orientation

3.The Russian Olympic Committee was created in

a) 1908

b) 1911

c) 1912

d) 1916

4.Alexander Popov – Olympic Champion in...

A) swimming

B) athletics

B) cross-country skiing

D) cycling

5.Which of the following events is not included in the modern pentathlon program

A) shooting

B) fencing

B) gymnastics

D) horse riding

6.Why were the ancient Olympic Games called holidays of peace?

A) the games were peaceful in nature

B) wars stopped during the games

C) athletes from all over the world took part in the Olympic Games

D) The Olympic Games were world famous

7.What type of program was the program of the first Olympic Games of Ancient Greece?

A) javelin throwing

B) fight

B) running one stage

D) four-stage race

8.What was the name of the type of sports program of the ancient Olympic Games that combined wrestling with fist fighting?

A) dolichodrome

B) pankration

B) pentathlon

D) diaul

9.Which organization leads the modern Olympic movement?

A) United Nations

B) International Council of Physical Education and Sports

B) International Olympic Committee

D) International Olympic Academy

10.Who was the first president of the International Olympic Committee?

A) Pierre de Coubertin

B) Alexey Butovsky

B) Michael Killanin

D) Demetrius Vikelas

11.Who became the first Olympic champion among Russian athletes?

A) N. Orlov

B) A. Petrov

B) N. Panin - Kolomenkin

D) A. Butovsky

12.Why does the Fair Play movement award the honorary Pierre de Coubertin prize?

A) for fair refereeing

B) for victories at three Olympics

B) for an honest and fair fight

D) for his great contribution to the development of the Olympic movement

13. Who is the current president of the Russian Olympic Committee?

A) Shamil Tarpishchev

B) Vyacheslav Fetisov

B) Leonid Tyagachev

D) Vitaly Smirnov

14. At the opening of the Olympic Games, the parade of Olympic delegations of the participating countries opens (goes first):

A) delegation of the organizing country

C) delegation of the country that organized the previous Olympiad

D) Greek delegation

15. At the opening of the Olympic Games, the parade of the Olympic delegations of the participating countries ends (comes last):

A) delegation of the organizing country

B) delegation of a country whose name begins with the first letters of the alphabet of the organizing country

c) delegation of the organizing country of the previous Olympics

d) delegation of Greece

16.In what year was the International Olympic Committee founded?

B) 1894

17.The term “Olympiad” means:

A) a four-year period between the Olympic Games

B) the first year of the quadrennial, the onset of which is celebrated by the Olympic Games

B) synonymous with the Olympic Games

D) competitions held during the Olympic Games

18. In what year did the Olympic Games take place in our country?

A) were planned in 1944, but were canceled due to World War 2

B) in 1976 in Sochi

B) in 1980 in Moscow

D) have not yet been carried out

19.What disciplines included the pentathlon - the ancient Greek pentathlon?

1.fist fighting 2.horse riding 3.long jump 4.high jump

5.discus throwing 6.running 7.archery 8.wrestling

9.swimming 10.javelin throwing

B)3,5,6,8,10

20.Pierre de Coubertin was awarded an Olympic gold medal at an art competition in...

A) in 1894 for the draft Olympic Charter

B) in 1912 for “Ode to Sports”

B) in 1914 for the flag donated by Coubertin to the IOC

D) in 1920 for the text of the Olympic Oath

21.The Olympic symbol consists of five intertwined rings arranged from left to right in the following order...

A) at the top - blue, black, red, at the bottom - yellow and green

B) above - green, black, red, below - blue and yellow

C) at the top - red, blue, black, at the bottom - yellow and green

D) above - blue, black, red, below - green and yellow

22.The Olympic Games consist of...

A) competitions between countries

B) competitions in winter or summer sports

B) winter and summer Olympic Games

D) opening, competitions, rewarding of participants and closing

23.What were the names of the special rooms for preparing athletes for the ancient Greek Olympic Games?

A) palaestra

B) amphitheater

B) gymnasium

D) stadium

24.The mascot of the Olympic Games is:

A) image of the Olympic flag

B) image of five intertwined rings

C) an image of an animal popular in the country hosting the Olympics

D) an image of an architectural monument popular in the country hosting the Olympics

25. The talisman, as if bringing happiness to any Olympian, any fan, first appeared at the games in ...

A) 1968 in Mexico City

B) 1972 in Munich

B) 1976 in Montreal

D) 1980 in Moscow

26. Motor skill is:

A) level of knowledge about movements

B) level of proficiency in motor action

C) level of tactical training

D) level of proficiency in the movement system

27.The implementation of the goal of physical education is carried out through the decision:

A) motor, hygienic and educational tasks

B) hardening, psychological and philosophical tasks

C) tasks of the development of the respiratory and cardiovascular systems

D) health, educational and educational tasks

28. Temporary decrease in performance is usually called:

A) tiredness

B) voltage

B) fatigue

D) overdose

29.What are the main means of physical education?

A) training sessions

B) exercise

B) teaching aids

D) hardening agents

30.Which of the following physical exercises are considered cyclic?

A) throwing

B) jumping

B) somersaults

D) running

31. One of the main physical qualities is:

A) attention

B) performance

B) strength

D) health

32.What physical quality develops during long running at a slow pace?

B) endurance

B) speed

D) dexterity

33.Indicate the type of sport that provides the greatest effect in developing flexibility:

A) weightlifting

B) gymnastics

B) modern pentathlon

D) athletics

34.The best conditions for the development of dexterity are created during...

A) outdoor and sports games

B) high jump

B) running at maximum speed

D) athletics

35.Name the main physical qualities.

A) coordination, endurance, flexibility, strength, speed

B) agility, strength, speed, endurance, flexibility

C) general endurance, strength endurance, speed, strength, agility

D) general endurance, strength endurance, flexibility, speed, agility

36.The main and compulsory form of physical education at school is:

A) competition

B) physical education break

B) physical education lesson

D) morning exercises

37.What characterize the tests conducted in physical education lessons?

A) level of physical development

B) level of physical performance

B) level of physical education

D) level of physical fitness

38.What is the basic law of the World Olympic Movement?

A) encyclopedia

B) code

B) charter

D) constitution

39.What events influenced the fact that the Games of the 6th, 7th and 8th Olympiads did not take place?

A) lack of coordination between countries

B) refusal to participate in the Games of most countries

B) the first and second world wars

D) refusal of the country organizing the Games to host them

40. Alexander Karelin – Olympic Champion in...

A) gymnastics

B) swimming

D) fight

41.The Minister of Physical Culture, Sports and Tourism of the Republic of Mari EL is:

A) Sergei Kropotov

B) Sergey Kiverin

D) Vladimir Chumakov

D) Valery Korablev

42. The chairman of the committee for physical culture and sports of the administration of the urban district “City of Yoshkar-Ola” is:

A) Peter Kagalo

B) Alexander Sergeev

B) Anatoly Podoynikov

D) Vladimir Tyan

43. The position of the student on the apparatus, in which his shoulders are below the grip points, in gymnastics is designated as:

B) grouping

D) hanging

44. The position of the student, in which the legs are bent at the knees and the hands are raised to the chest

and the hands grab the knees, in gymnastics it is designated as:

b) capture

c) roll

d) grouping

45.A jump from an apparatus in gymnastics is designated as...

B) dismount

D) jumping

46. ​​Rotational movement through the head with sequential touching of the supporting surface by individual parts of the body in gymnastics is designated as...

A) somersault

B) roll

B) coup

D) somersault

47.The position of those exercising on bent legs in gymnastics is designated as...

B) squat

D) stand

48.What is meant by the term “Distance” in gymnastics?

A) the distance between students “In depth”

B) the distance between students “along the front”

C) the distance from the student standing in front to the formation standing behind

D) the distance from the first rank to the last

49. Which of the following teams in gymnastics have only an executive part?

1. “Be equal!” 2. “Less!” 3. “All around!” 4. “At ease!” 5. “Attention!”

B) 1,4,5

50. The ability of students to form into various types of formations, ranks, columns, circles, as well as to rearrange themselves in them, is called in gymnastics...

A) drill techniques

B) movements

B) opening and closing

D) constructions and reconstructions

51. An arched, maximally bent position with your back to the supporting plane with support from your arms and legs is called in gymnastics...

A) stand

B) "bridge"

B) coup

D) “split”

52.Which gymnast is the absolute record holder for the number of Olympic medals (18 medals - 9 of them gold)?

A) Olga Korbut

B) Nadia Comaneci

B) Larisa Latynina

D) Lyudmila Turishcheva

53.Volleyball as a sports game appeared at the end of the 19th century in ....

A) Canada

B) Japan

IN THE USA

D) Germany

54. In volleyball, a player who is in the 1st zone, when “transitioning”, moves to the zone...

55. When was volleyball recognized as an Olympic sport?

B) in 1957

56. Indicate the full composition of the volleyball team:

A) 6 people, coach, assistant coach, massage therapist, doctor

B) 10 people, coach, assistant coach, massage therapist, doctor

B) 8 people, coach, assistant coach, massage therapist, doctor

D) 12 people, coach, assistant coach, massage therapist, doctor

57. “LIBERO” in volleyball is...

A) defensive player

B) attacking player

B) team captain

D) substitute player

58. How do players move from zone to zone in volleyball?

A) arbitrarily

B) clockwise

B) counterclockwise

D) as directed by the trainer

59. Is it possible to change the position of players in volleyball?

A) Yes, as directed by the trainer

B) yes, as directed by the judge

D) yes, but only at the beginning of each game

60. How many substitutions are allowed in volleyball in each game and during several breaks?

A) maximum 3

B) maximum 8

B) maximum 6

D) maximum 9

61. Mistakes in volleyball are considered...

A) “three touch strikes”

B) “four touch strikes”, hit supported by “double touch”

C) the player jumps on the block once and touches the ball twice

D) the ball comes into contact with any part of the body

62. Serving the ball in volleyball after the referee’s whistle is performed within...

A) 3 seconds

B) 5 seconds

B) 6 seconds

D) 8 seconds

63. Volleyball net height for men's teams:

B) 2m 43cm

64. Volleyball net height for women's teams:

D) 2m 24cm

65. Can a player on a volleyball team play without shoes?

A) yes

B) only at high air temperatures

B) only at high air humidity

66. “Scourge by will” is:

A) game action

B) beach volleyball

B) serving the ball

D) receiving the ball

67. Indicate the number of players on the volleyball team who are on the court at the same time.

68. The basketball game begins….

A) from the time indicated in the game schedule

B) from the beginning of the warm-up

B) with greetings from the teams

D) jump ball in the center circle.

69. The basketball game ends...

A) when the timekeeper's signal sounds, indicating the expiration of playing time

B) teams leaving the site

C) at the time of signing the protocol by the senior judge

D) the ball went out of bounds

70. The ball in basketball “enters” the game when...

A) the referee enters the circle to make a jump ball

B) the player at the throw-in point is in possession of the ball, outside the court

B) the ball is touched by a player on the court after a throw-in

D) the referee blows his whistle

71. The ball in basketball becomes “alive” when...

A) it reaches its highest point on a jump ball and is saved by the first player

B) the referee hands it over to the player taking the free throw

B) the ball is touched by a player on the court after a throw-in

D) the ball is in possession of a player located at the throw-in point outside the court

72. The ball in basketball becomes “dead” when...

A) any ball is thrown

B) the referee's whistle sounds when the ball is “live” or “in play”

B) the ball is in the possession of the player taking the free throw.

D) the “24 seconds operator” signal sounds when the ball is “live”

73. Which member of the basketball team has the right to ask for a break?

A) any team member

B) team captain

B) coach or assistant coach

74. Team A is given a break in basketball. After 30 seconds, Team A is ready to continue the game. When should the referees continue the game?

A) 1 minute after team “B” enters the court

B) in any case after 15 seconds

B) in any case after 1 minute

D) immediately

75. Indicate the number of players on the basketball team who are on the court at the same time.

76. What does the term “run” mean in basketball?

A) taking more than one step with the ball in your hands

B) performing two steps with the ball in your hands

C) performing three steps with the ball in your hands

D) taking more than two steps with the ball in your hands

77. Indicate the number of players on a football team who are on the court at the same time?

78. What is the height of the football goal?

B) 244 cm

79. What is the width of a football goal?

B) 7m 32cm

80. From what distance is a penalty kick taken in football?

B) 11 m

81. What does a “yellow card” mean in football?

A) remark

B) warning

B) reprimand

D) removal

82. Which kick is considered the most accurate in football?

A) mid-rise

B) the inner part of the rise

B) the outer part of the rise

D) the inside of the foot

83. Which of these terms refers to a striker in football?

A) forward

B) goalkeeper

B) stopper

D) midfielder

84. What is the abbreviation of the International Football Federation?

B) FIFA

85. Which country is considered the birthplace of the game of football?

A) Brazil

B) Spain

B) Germany

D) England

86. Which of our football goalkeepers became the best player in Europe - winner of the Golden Ball?

A) Yashin

B) Dasaev

B) Ovchinnikov

G) Akinfeev

87. After how many yellow cards during the Russian Football Championship is a player disqualified for one match?

A) after 2 cards

B) after 3 cards

B) after 4 cards

D) after 5 cards

88. One of the methods of long jump in athletics is designated as a jump...

A) "running"

B) “stepping over”

B) "roll"

D) “scissors”

89. In athletics the core:

A) throw

B) throw

B) push

D) launch

90. Name the method of jumping that athletes clear the bar at international competitions in high jumps.

A) "dive"

B) “scissors”

B) “stepping over”

D) “Fosbury flop”

91. “Queen of sports” is called….

A) artistic gymnastics

B) athletics

Play chess

D) skiing

92. Sprint running in athletics includes...

A) 5000 meter run

B) 100 meter run

D) marathon running

93. Cross is –

A) running at speed

B) running on an artificial stadium track

B) cross-country running

D) run-up before jumping

94. In long-distance running in athletics, the main physical quality that determines success is...

A) speed

B) endurance

D) dexterity

95. Which ski move is the fastest?

A) simultaneous stepless

B) simultaneous one-step

B) simultaneous two-step

D) alternating two-step

96. Which skier's stance during descent is faster?

A) high stance

B) middle pillar

B) low stance

D) main stand

A) 30 km race

B) 50 km race

B) 60 km race

D) 70 km race

98. The main element of skier tactics is

B) leading

B) distribution of forces

99. The height of the poles during free (skating) skiing should be...

A) to the level of the student’s shoulders

B) to the student’s eye level

D) 3-4 cm lower than the student’s shoulders

100. The height of ski poles during a classic move should be...

A) to the level of the student’s shoulders

B) to the student’s eye level

C) 3-4 cm higher than the student’s height

D) 3-4 cm lower than the student’s shoulder level

A psychological test for determining temperament will quite accurately determine the emotional type of your child. Do not forget that each person is unique, and in order to fully realize the potential of your child, it is necessary to determine the type of his temperament. Some people need your support and help, others need to be given more independence and opportunities for self-improvement. Unfortunately, some people also need the help of a psychologist. Our online test: [Your Child's Temperament] will help you determine the next steps in your child's development. Observe your child, analyze his behavior and try to answer the test questions honestly. At the end of the test you will be given an assessment of your child's temperament type with some comments. Our online test: [Your Child's Temperament] is completely free without SMS or registration! The result will be shown immediately after answering the last question!

The test contains 100 questions!

Start the test online:

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  The test will last approximately 5 minutes and will contain 50 attempts.
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TOPOGRAPHIC ANATOMY AND OPERATIVE SURGERY Faculty of Medicine

001. Which nerve can be damaged during a surgical fracture of the humeral neck?

1) nerve axillaris

2) nervus medianus

3) nervus musculocutaneus

4) nervus radietis

5) nervus ulnaris

002. Which nerve can be damaged when the humerus is fractured in the middle third?

1) nervus musculocutaneus

2) nervus radiaNs

3) nervus ulnaris

4) nerve axillaris

5) nervus medianus

003. Damage to which nerve is accompanied by flaccid paralysis of the muscles that extend the fingers and hand?

1) ramus superficial nervi radial"*

2) nervus medianus

3) nerve interosseus

5) nervus ulnaris

004. Which nerve is located on the anterior surface of the lower third of the forearm and, by its appearance, can be mistaken for a tendon?

1) nervus medianus

2) nervus ulnaris

3) ramus superficial nerve radialis

4) ramus profundus nervi radialis

5) nerve interosseus

005. Indicate which anatomical landmark the projection line of the brachial artery corresponds to

1) sulcus bitipitalis medtalis

2) sulcus biciprtaiis lateralis

3) vena basiiice

4) vena cephalica

5) nervus musculocutaneus

006. Indicate what position the upper limb takes when the radial nerve is damaged

1) "obstetrician's hand"

2) "clawed paw"

3) "monkey brush"

4) "beggar's hand"

5) "lash"

007. Indicate which nerve can be damaged during a transverse incised wound of the lower third of the anterior region of the forearm

1) ramus superficialis neivi radiaiis

2) nervus medianus

3) nerve interosseus

4) ramus profundus nervi radiaiis

5) nervus ulnaris

008. Explain why intramuscular injections of drugs are performed in superior lateral quadrant of the gluteal region

1) to speed up absorption

2) to minimize the possibility of spinal damage

3) for the least possible damage to the arteria femoralis

4) for the least possible damage to the contents foramen supraperiformis and infraperiformis

5) due to the least pain in this area

009. Indicate how the spread of pus from the pelvic cavity into the adductor muscles can occur through

1) canalis femoralis

2) foramen supraperiformis

3) foramen infraperiformis

4) canalis obturatorius

5) inguinal canal

010. When which nerve is damaged, the foot takes on a pathological position, which is called the “horse foot”?

1) nervus peroneua profundus

2) nervus tibialis

3) nervus obturatorius

4) nervus ischiadicus

5) nervus saphenus

11. Which nerve can be damaged when opening the posterior part of the shoulder joint?

1) nerve axillaris

2) nervus medianus

3) nervus radiaiis

4) nervus cutaneus brachii medialis

5) nervus musculo-cutaneus

2) nervus ischiadicus

3) nerve saphenus

4) nervus tibialis

5) nerve femoralis

013. Name the artery that is usually punctured to perform selective tsialiac or mesentericography according to Saldinger

1) arteria femoralis

2) arteria subdavia

3) arteria renalis

4) arteria carotis communis

5) arteria brachials

014. Why is a Fogarty catheter used during vascular surgery?

1) for thrombectomy

2) to close the ductus batallus

3) for long-term intravenous infusion of drugs

4) for intravenous urography

5) for puncture of the subclavian vein

015. To which venous sinus of the dura mater of the brain is hematogenous transfer of infection possible during a boil in the nasolabial fold area?

1) sinus cavernosus

2) sinus sagittalis inferior

3) sinus sigmoideus

4) sinus petrosus mqjor

5) sinus rectus

016. In which area of ​​the head should craniotomy be performed?

for ligation of the middle ophthalmic artery?

1) in the Shipo triangle

2) in the temporal region

3) in the frontal region

4) in the parietal region

5) in the occipital region

017. When what bone is fractured does bleeding and lycorrhea occur from the external auditory canal?

1) temporal

2) pterygoid

3) maxillary

4) occipital

5) lattice

018. Name the sinus of the dura mater of the brain that can be damaged during trepanation of the mastoid process

1) sagittal

2) cavernous

3) sigmoid

4) big rocky

5) straight

019. Which nerve can be damaged during resection of the thyroid gland?

1) truncus simpatico

2) nerve vagus

3) nervus frenicus

4) nervus hipoglossus

5) nervus laryngeus recurens

020. What is the purpose of external drainage of the thoracic duct?

1) detoxification

2) decrease in intracranial pressure

3) lowering blood pressure

4) treatment of thyrotoxicosis

5) decrease in venous pressure

021. Which nerve is used as an anatomical landmark during operations on the patent ductus arteriosus?

1) third intercostal

2) origin of the left recurrent nerve from the vagus nerve

3) small visceral

4) large visceral

5) sympathetic trunk

1) Volkovich-Dya kon ov

2) Gerard-Spasokukotsky

3) Shchetkin-Blumberg

4) Fedorov

5) Pirogov

024. How is the hernial sac formed in a congenital inguinal hernia?

1) vaginal process of the peritoneum

2) parietal peritoneum

3) mesentery of the small intestine

4) testicular membranes

5) bladder walls

025. Through which vessel is portohepatography performed?

1) umbilical vein

2) umbilical artery

3) hepatic vein

4) large hidden vein

5) inferior vena cava

2) sigmoid 3) descending

4) semicolic

5) blind

027. What technical technique prevents food from flowing into the free abdominal cavity during gastrosgomia?

1) gastropexy

2) creation of an artificial valve

3) ligation of the right gastric artery

4) tamponade with greater omentum

5) creating muscle mass

028. Name the fold of the peritoneum that must be pulled upward during surgical access to the bladder to perform a high section

1) round

2) medial umbilical

3) lateral umbilical

4) transverse

5) median umbilical

028. List the organs and anatomical structures that pass through the thickness of the prostate gland

1) ureter

2) internal iliac vein

3) internal iliac artery

4) genital-femoral nerve

5) urethra

030. Thrombophlebitis and varicose veins of which saphenous vein is most often observed on the thigh and lower leg?

1) vena femoralis

2) vena saphena magna

3) vena obturatoria

4) vena saphena pan/a

5) vena profunda femoris

031. Indicate which wall of the femoral ring is dissected for a strangulated femoral hernia

1) front

2) back

3) lateral

4) medial

5) none

032. Indicate which side of the femoral artery the femoral vein is located at the base of the femoral triangle

1) medially

2) laterally

3) behind

4) front

5) perpendicular

033. Describe the position of the foot when the deep branch of the peroneal nerve is damaged

1) "horse foot"

2) "heel foot"

3) varus position of the foot

4) rotated outwards

5) the foot does not change its normal position

034. Explain what causes the effect muscular-venous "pump" of the lower limb

1) muscle mass

2) the presence of a valve apparatus in the eyelids of the lower limb

3) suction action of the pelvic diaphragm

4) double vein system

5) bend of the veins of the leg

035. Indicate on which surfaces of the middle and main phalanges II-IV

1) on the sides

2) on the palm

3) on the back

4) cross-shaped incision on the palmar surface

5) all options are possible

036. Name the sinus of the dura mater, which is most often damaged in injuries to the vault of the head

1) superior sagittal

2) inferior sagittal

3) straight

4) transverse

5) cavernous

037. Explain why bleeding from the sinuses of the dura mater of the brain does not tend to stop spontaneously

1) due to decreased blood clotting

2) due to the triangular shape of the sine

3) due to increased cerebrospinal fluid pressure

4) due to high venous pressure

5) due to high blood pressure

038. Name the nerve located in the esophageal-tracheal groove

1) nerve vagus

2) nervus frenicus

3) nervus sptanchicus major

4) nervus laryngaus recurens

5) nervus hypoglossus

039. Indicate the place where they determine"phrenicus symptom"

1) between the legs of the muscukis sternocleidomaatoideus

5) in the middle of the posterior edge of the musculus stemocleidomastoideus

040. Indicate where the needles are made when performing a cervical vagosympathetic blockade according to A.V. Vishnevsky

1) between the legs of the muscukis stemocleidomastoideus

2) in the angle formed by the clavicle and the outer edge of the musculus stemocleidomastoideus

3) in the area of ​​the jugular notch of the sternum

4) 3 cm above the middle of the collarbone

5) intersection of the posterior edge of the musculus stemocleidomastoideus

with vena jugularis externa

041. Name the mistake made when opening the trachea, when breathing is not restored after insertion of the trachvostomy cannula

1) esophageal injury

3) the mucous membrane is not opened

4) tracheostomy placed low

5) damage to the nervus laryngeus reccurens

042. Name the instrument used to widen the wound of the trachea during trachostomy

1) Liston wire cutters

2) Dahlgren wire cutters

3) trousseau dilator

4) single hooks

5) Doliotti-Vishnevsky clamp

43. Indicate which parts of the thyroid gland are preserved during subtotal subfascial resection

1) rear nonlateral

2) anterolatral

3) isthmus of the gland

4) upper pole

5) lower pole

044. Indicate in which direction it is advisable to make incisions to open intramammary abscesses

1) in radial

2) in a semicircular

3) oblique

4) in vertical

5) direction doesn't matter

045. With regromammary phlegmon, the tissue located

1) subcutaneously

2) around the gland lobules

3) under the pectoralis major muscle

4) behind the mammary capsule

5) under the pectoralis minor muscle

1) due to the possibility of damage to the intercostal neurovascular bundle

2) due to the possibility of pneumothorax

3) due to damage to the intercostal muscles

4) due to the structural features of the periosteum

5) to ease anesthesia

047. Indicate which hernias of the anterior lateral abdominal wall are an indication for emergency surgery

1) congenital

2) disadvantaged

3) sliding

4) irrevocable

5) all of the above

3) the navel is cut lengthwise

4) the navel is cut across

5) choosing a side doesn't matter

049. Indicate which vein system the blood outflows from the stomach into

1) vena cava superior

2) vena cava inferior

3) vena mesenterica superior

4) vena portae

5) vena umbilicalis

050. Explain why acute circulatory disorders in the celiac trunk are dangerous

1) acute renal failure

2) necrosis of the organs of the upper abdominal cavity

3) acute intestinal obstruction

4) acute ischemia of the pelvic organs

5) acute adrenal insufficiency

1) for gastroscopy

2) for pancreatography

3) for intraoperative cholangiography

4) for duodenoscopy

5) for portohepatography

052. Explain how the abscess is punctured directly enterovesical recess

1) through the bladder

2) through the rectum

3) through the rectal fossa

4) through the anterior abdominal wall

5) through the filling channel

053. Indicate in which method of examination the bends of the rectum are of great practical importance

1) during digital examination of the rectum

2) during pneumoleritoneum

3) during vaginal examination

4) with the rector of vnoscopy

5) with cytoscopy

054. What is “optional choice?”

1) an operation that can be chosen by the patient or the surgeon

3) surgery that will eliminate the most severe consequences of the disease

4) operation characterized by technical simplicity

5) operation described in most manuals

055. What is an “operation of necessity”?

1) an operation that must be performed after prior x-ray radiotherapy

2) an operation, the possibility of which is determined by the qualifications of the surgeon

3) an operation, the possibility of which is determined by the qualifications of the surgeon and the condition of the patient

4) any operation that needs to be performed on a patient

5) the best operation for the treatment of this disease, corresponding to modern scientific achievements

056. What is radical surgery?

1) one-time operation

2) surgery that completely eliminates the pathological focus

3) surgery to relieve pain

4) technically simple operation

5) an operation that can be performed by any surgeon

2) eliminating the pathological focus

3) the simplest technique to perform

058. How should a hemostatic clamp be applied to the end of a bleeding vessel?

1) across the course of the vessel

2) along the course of the vessel - the clamp is its continuation

3) at an angle of 45°

4) there is no specific rule

5) as it turns out, it is important to stop the bleeding

59. Where can the pulsation of the brachial artery be determined? 1) at the outer edge of the biceps brachii muscle

2) at the place of attachment of the deltoid muscle to the humerus

3) at the inner edge of the deltoid muscle

4) in the middle of the medial surface of the shoulder

5) arterial pulsation cannot be palpated at the shoulder